More TNIV woes
As I’ve previously mentioned on this blog, for the last eight years I’ve used the NRSV as the standard English Bible translation in the college courses I teach. Throughout that whole time, however, I’ve found that students sometimes have difficulty understanding the English of the NRSV; with unnerving frequency the NRSV translators chose to use less familiar English words when more familiar ones would do. The NRSV has some very strong points in my opinion, but it doesn’t really qualify as colloquial English for ordinary readers.
This semester I have been exploring the use of the TNIV as an alternative to the NRSV. The TNIV tends to be much more readable than the NRSV, and that is a big mark in its favor. Zondervan graciously sent me an examination copy of the TNIV Study Bible, and I’ve been linking the students’ reading assignments to the Bible Gateway TNIV resource.
Yet my experience using the TNIV in class over the last few weeks has been less than satisfactory. The problem, simply put, is that the TNIV translators seem comfortable with simply altering the text when the actual Hebrew text does not suit their theological outlook. They don’t rewrite whole passages willy-nilly, of course, but they do “spin” the semantics and even add words that completely change the meanings of entire sentences or passages.
In the last week and a half I’ve been teaching from the Latter Prophets in class, so here are some prime examples.
(1) Jeremiah 7:22-23
In Hebrew:
כי לא־דברתי את־אבותיכם ולא צויתים ביום הוציא אותם מארץ מצרים על־דברי עולה וזבח כי אם־את־הדבר הזה צויתי אותם לאמר שמעו בקולי
A fairly literal translation of this long complex sentence would read:
For I did not speak to your ancestors and I did not command them in the day when I brought them from the land of Egypt concerning matters of burnt offering or sacrifice, but rather this word I commanded them, saying, “Listen to my voice …”
For those of you unfamiliar with Hebrew syntax, the word pair כי אם (ki ’im), which I have translated above as “but rather,” introduces the positive alternative to a negative statement that was itself previously introduced by לא (lo’), translated above as “not.” In other words, a sentence with the structure לא … כי אם has a “not this … but that” logic. Jeremiah 7:22–23 flatly makes the claim that God did not give commands about burnt offerings and sacrifices, but rather about obedience. Of course, this does not quite square with Leviticus, and whether Leviticus is historically inaccurate or whether Jeremiah is spinning history to make a point is something that has to be determined through exegesis and interpretation. The syntax, however, is not at all equivocal: not about sacrifices, but about obedience, did God issue commands at the time of the exodus.
The TNIV translators, however, apparently can’t stand the idea of Jeremiah disagreeing with Leviticus, so without any warrant in the Hebrew text or in Hebrew syntax they add one small English word that completely changes the sense of the entire passage:
For when I brought your ancestors out of Egypt and spoke to them, I did not just give them commands about burnt offerings and sacrifices, but I gave them this command: Obey me …
By just adding just one little word, the TNIV translators have just completely reversed the claim that Jeremiah is making. I just really wish they hadn’t done that; it makes this passage basically unusable unless I explain to the students how the TNIV has mistranslated the passage. One of the reasons I’ve been experimenting with the TNIV is that I don’t want to have to take up valuable class time “translating” between NRSV English and their everyday spoken English, but I also don’t want to spend valuable class time having to explain why their TNIV is translated incorrectly.
Note: The following comments on Isaiah 7:14 are marred by hasty and incorrect grammatical analysis. Don’t trust anything I say in the marked-out section. Instead, see the comment below by Peter Kirk to find out why I was dead wrong … at least on the grammar.
(2) Isaiah 7:14
I guess I shouldn’t be surprised that the TNIV treats this one no better than the original NIV, but it’s still a pain when you’re trying to get your students into the mindset of the Syro-Ephraimite crisis (c. 735-732 BCE) and their translation makes them think of Christmas. The Hebrew text reads:
הנה העלמה הרה וילדת בן וקראת שמו עמנו אל
I should say that I have no objection to the evangelist Matthew (or “Matthew” if you prefer the “scare quotes”) quoting Isaiah 7:14 from the Septaugint and applying it to the birth of Jesus, but I do have a problem with translators acting as if the Hebrew text read the same as Matthew’s quotation. Again I will offer a more literalistic translation:
Look, the young woman has conceived and she will bear a son and she will call his name Immanu-El.
The TNIV reads:
The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
There are two issues here. One is the translation of עלמה (‘almah), my “young woman,” TNIV’s “virgin.” I don’t want to be too dogmatic about the semantics of עלמה; whether or not the word actually had the sense “virgin” is debatable, although in some of the very few cases where the word is actually used in biblical Hebrew, the term applies to young women who are arguably virgins. You can probably make that argument in at least four of the seven instances where the term actually occurs in the Tanakh. I suspect that such a sense cannot really be sustained in the two instances where the Song of Songs uses the word עלמה, but maybe an argument could be made. Biblical Hebrew has another word, בתולה (bethulah), that specifically means “virgin” and draws attention to the virginity; in fact, בתולה is related to the abstract noun in Hebrew for virginity, בתולים. Certainly, by using the word עלמה instead of בתולה, Isaiah (or the author of the book who crafts Isaiah’s dialogue) declines to specifically emphasize a virginal state on the part of the young woman to whom Isaiah refers. An עלמה is not definitely or clearly a virgin simply by virtue of the term, but she is definitely and clearly a young woman, according to the semantics of עלמה.
But the noun עלמה by itself is not really the key to seeing that this particular עלמה is not a virgin; that key, rather, is the verb form הרה. To oversimplify matters a bit for those of you who don’t read Hebrew, Hebrew verbs have two “aspects,” perfect and imperfect. Perfect aspect is generally used for actions that are completed from the point of view of the narration, and imperfect for those that are not yet completed from the point of view of the narration. Each of these can be “converted” into the other by the use of the conjunction ו, a usage called the “waw consecutive” (it also goes by other names). There are much more sophisticated ways of explaining all this, but that’ll do for the moment. In this sentence, we have three key verbs. The first, הרה (harah), is a perfect aspect form of the verb “to conceive, to become pregnant.” Since the verb is in the perfect aspect, with no waw consecutive affixed, this indicates that the young woman in question is already pregnant—and hence, no doubt, not a virgin. She has not delivered the child yet, as indicated by the use of ילד (yalad, “to bear, to give birth”) in the imperfect aspect (the affixed ו, for those of you wondering, is not pointed in the Masoretic Text as a waw consecutive, but as a simple conjunctive waw). Thus, the young non-virginal woman is already pregnant but has not yet delivered. But the TNIV obscures all this—screwing up the entire point of the sign in the context of the Syro-Ephraimite crisis and making students think that the real point is about Jesus.
(3) Isaiah 56:4–5
The TNIV (like the NIV) often goes in for phrase-by-phrase translation instead of word-for-word translation. In general, this is a laudable and highly responsible thing to do. In some cases, however, attempting to provide a semantically “equivalent” phrase ends up, shall we say, emasculating the text. (Okay, so there are probably ideological issues with my use of a maculine metaphor for a text; bear with me, and you’ll see why I chose that metaphor.) Here’s the Hebrew text:
כי־כה אמר יהוה
לסריסים אשר ישמרו את־שבתותי
ובחרו באשר חפצתי ומחזיקים בבריתי
ונתתי להם בביתי ובחומתי יד ושם טוב מבנים ומבנות
שם עולם אתן־לו אשר לא יכרת
Here’s the TNIV translation:
For this is what the LORD says:
“To the eunuchs who keep my Sabbaths,
who choose what pleases me
and hold fast to my covenant—
to them I will give within my temple and its walls
a memorial and a name
better than sons and daughters;
I will give them an everlasting name
that will endure forever.
For the most part, the TNIV translation of this passage is excellent. But the last line changes a negative Hebrew statement into a positive English statement. That in itself is not a bad thing, but there is, well, a “double entendre” in the last line that the TNIV obscures. The Hebrew phrase אשר לא יכרת, the last line, means “that will not be cut [off].” This is perfectly understandable, and English reads will “get the joke” if they see it: “To the eunuchs … I will give an everlasting name that will not be cut off.” Why did the TNIV translators choose to obscure the pun? Were their evangelical sensibilities just too squeamish to preserve the Hebrew text’s double entendre? Or did they have some “nobler” purpose related to “readability” (though I don’t think I’d agree with any such argument)? Semantically, to “endure forever” and to “not be cut off” are similar enough that the TNIV doesn’t distort the semantic sense of the passage, but it does distort the aesthetics (and cheeky humor) of the passage and robs readers of a richer reading experience.
You know what I really want? A translation that has the readability of the TNIV without the theological baggage that distorts the text—but not one that does as far as, say, the CEV in simplifying its vocabulary. Does anyone know of such a translation? Does it exist? Have I just missed it? Or is it time for a new translation project (maybe without the word “Standard” in the name—you don’t actually become a “standard” by claiming to be such)?
19 comments Christopher Heard | Bible translation

Chris,
Personally, I like the original Jerusalem Bible. It is readable and maintains a good bit of the “feel” of the Hebrew. Added benefit–it is not informed by the KJV tradition the way most English translations are. The New Jerusalem seems to have lost a good bit of the “feel” of the Hebrew, so I don’t like it as well.
HTH,
James
Chris,
Your post on the TNIV is great. You must also see what they did with 2 Samuel 21:19. Several months ago, I wrote an article comparing the NIV with the TNIV. That post, “The NIV and the TNIV: Two Bibles with Contradictory Views” is found at http://www.claudemariottini.com/blog/2005/11/niv-and-tniv-two-bibles-with.html.
The purpose of my post was to argue that, since many of the translators of the TNIV believe in the inerrancy of the Scriptures, they should not change the text in order to solve controversial problems in the text.
With your permission, I will copy and post your discussion of Isaiah 7:14 on my blog and invite readers to visit your blog and read your post.
Good work.
Claude Mariottini
wrt: isaiah 7:14, at least they rendered העלמה as “THE virgin” something a few rather prominent translations do not. the sense being, of course, that she is present for the conversation. your point about the verbs lines up nicely with this idea.
personally, i don’t see how someone can read isaiah 7 and come to conclusion that it could even possibly be about jesus in the slightest, even if the word “virgin” remains. the prophecy is that king ahaz will defeat his (assyrian, iirc?) enemies. the child’s age is given as a clock until completion. as i understand it, his bar mitzvah is the deadline. the child himself is not the prophecy.
and it needs to be about a specific child ahaz would know, and it would need to be within ahaz’s lifetime. the point is all the more clear with better translations, but really it should be fairly obvious from, you know, actually reading isaiah.
as far as theological-baggage-free translations, how do you feel about the new JPS? my only gripe with it, so far, is their replacement of בני אלהים (sons of god) with “-divine beings-.” i think it might be driven more by disagreement with christianity than reverence for god (they include the hebrew name of god, at one point), or distaste for things reminiscent of polytheism.
Arachnophilia, I like the JPS, but it has the same problem as the NRSV, only more so: its English is not always what my 18-year-old students will recognize as normal English. The vocabulary is unfamiliar enough sometimes to be confusing.
Oh, and the Immanuel timetable may not be the age of moral accountability (c. 12-13 if you retroject the bar mitzvah tradition anchronistically into the Iron Age) but the age of being weaned. Some interpreters have suggested that the issue is not moral choices but food choices, since the emphasis is, after all, on Immanuel’s menu.
I can think of many more examples of “theological” translation in the TNIV/NIV (e.g., “Son” in Psalm 2, the size of Nineveh in Jonah, etc.). If you find that perfect translation… let me know! I still use the NRSV, primarily because many of my students are familiar with the NIV and I want to get them to purchase a more formal translation for comparison.
[...] Christopher has a very good (and humorous) breakdown of the problems with the TNIV [...]
really? i found it quite easily to read. much more so than many other translations (kjv, nkjv, rsv, nasb, etc). it was the recommended translation for my old testament (college) class.
personally, i feel that it’s really hard to get a sense of what the authors mean without at least some knowledge of the way hebrew works, even in english. but teaching hebrew is another line of courses entirely, and it’s a bit much to expect of the average reader or student.
yes, that’s a very good point. and the particularly young age makes the passage much more dramatic.
*quite easy.
tyler,
are you referring to the uppercasing of “son,” and the implication of it referring to jesus?
Chris,
Maybe one solution is to simply show the value
in comparing translations. None are perfect.
You could show the differences and let the
students know why there are differences. It
could be a teaching moment.
I think you are right on the money with use of
the TNIV. While it isn’t perfect it does read
in the range of the students. I use it along
with the NIV & my default, the NRSV.
You claim that in Isaiah 7:14 “הרה (harah), is a perfect aspect form of the verb “to conceive, to become pregnant.”” But surely this cannot be correct. As the subject is feminine, the correct perfect form of this “lamed-he” verb would be the feminine הרתה (haretah). Rather, הרה must be the feminine form of the adjective “pregnant” (for which no masculine form is attested, for obvious reasons). This is anyway more probable after הנה (hinneh) which is usually followed by a verbless clause or a participle rather than a finite verb.
And then the following וילדת is pointed not as a “the imperfect aspect“, which would surely be ותלד, but as a participle וְיֹלֶדֶת (weyoledet).
So I would translate the whole thing as neither past nor future, nor the odd mixture in your literal translation, but present: “Look, the young woman is pregnant and is bearing a son…” The latter part is presumably to be considered as near future rather than actual present.
As for Jeremiah 7:22-23, I wonder if you can be so sure that כִי אִם cannot have a meaning something like “apart from”. In fact in BDB the gloss for sense 2a of this combination is “except”, explained as “limiting the prec. clause”. On this basis the sense could be something like “I did not command them … concerning matters of burnt offering or sacrifice, except when I commanded them this word , saying, “Listen to my voice …”” And if that is a possible understanding, it is not at all far from TNIV’s sense.
But I agree with you in not liking TNIV’s use of “virgin” in Isaiah 7:14.
It is worth pointing out that the first two of these problems are not new with TNIV but are inherited from NIV.
arachnophilia: Yes, that’s my quibble. In the original context I would argue it is referring to the human Davidic king and should be translated as such using lowercase. From a theological perspective you could apply it to Jesus (as some NT authors did), but I don’t think that should affect our translations (much in the same way Isa 7:14 should have young woman instead of virgin).
i have heard suggestions that “son of god” may have been a way of referring to kings (which were “gods” in many other cultures). IF that’s the case, and it is a title, capitalization may be up for debate. clearly, in psalm 2, it is referring to an earthly king.
i am forced to disagree. the context and grammar say otherwise. אֲנִי, הַיּוֹם יְלִדְתִּיךָ, “i have fathered you this day.” that day almost certainly referring to setting the king on the holy mountain in the previous verse. “son” and “king” are inextricably linked, and the person becomes the son when he becomes the king.
jesus was god’s son from the day he was born, and a careful reading of the new testament will tell you that he was never actually king of judah, nor sat on the throne on god’s holy mountain. like so many other supposed prophecies, the context just doesn’t fit the way it’s being used.
certainly not. i think everyone is in agreement here that ideology and theology should not affect translation. translate as faithfully to the original as you can, and if there are problems, leave them for the interpretters, and theologians, and those reading the text. people are capable of making up their own minds.
the problem is that there is so much of the bible that is hard to rectify with certain kinds of beliefs. close examination and study therefor yield doubt and questioning for many. evangelists try to whitewash a complicated and intricate text as effort to keep people saved.
Tyler and Arachnophilia, TNIV does not have a capital letter for “son” in Psalm 2:7,12, although NIV does.
It seems that there is a general tendency here for people to write what their prejudices are concerning what a text says, without actually checking the facts.
My comment yesterday on Jeremiah 7:22-23 was a bit hurried and confused. Let me clarify it as follows:
It seems far from certain that כי אם (ki ’im) in Jeremiah 7:22-23 necessarily means what you insist that it must mean. You seem to insist that lo’ A ki ‘im B must mean “not A but B”. But there are certainly places in the Hebrew Bible, such as Genesis 32:27 (English 32:26) (one of a number of possible examples selected from BDB sense 2a of כִי אִם), where the meaning is “not (A and not B)”. The TNIV translation of these verses corresponds to the latter interpretation. This may not be your preferred exegesis of these verses, but it is surely a defensible one. It also has the advantage of not making Jeremiah say something (that God did not make any commands about sacrifices) which it is highly improbable, on any historical reconstruction, that he actually believed.
Meanwhile on Isaiah 7:14, I have realised that if this verse is correctly parsed, it can have an entirely future meaning, for HINNEH + non-verbal sentence or participle can have a future sense. Thus the meaning can quite easily be “Look, the young woman will be pregnant and bear a son…” Thus the TNIV rendering is justified, apart from “virgin”. But I would also suggest that HINNEH suggests something in the immediate future, and relating to a particular young woman known to the speaker, rather than a prophecy to be fulfilled hundreds of years in the future. But then Hebrew verb forms in prophecies of the distant future are all over the place, so who knows?
Just in case Peter and Christopher do not see the convrsation on my blog, I replied to Peter’s objections re Jer. 7 here.
i was just speaking in general, about whether capitalization may or may not fit the verse in any translation, in response to what tyler said.
I find that of all the meaning-based philosophy translations, the best by far for the Hebrew testament is God’s Word (GW). It reads well, visually and orally. The one column layout permits better visual clues of textual relationships and aids oral readers to “see” the entire text and thus read better.
CH,
I like the ESV, though it has weaknesses as well (not least gender, which produces problems); much less wooden than the NAS; has RSV as base. For class I try to encourage multiple translations so as to get students understanding that ‘translation is always interpretation,’ and to encourage deeper study. TNIV and ESV would make a nice pair, as would (T)NIV and NRSV
I greatly appreciate the in-depth discussion of Isaiah 7:14. But what no one has pointed out is that the TNIV is a Christian translation of the whole Bible, and as such does not shirk to interpret the BC portions of the Bible as did the AD authors of the rest of the Bible. In many places the T/NIV follows the Septuagint over the Masoretic text; this is arguably one of them, and it does in for purposes of fluidity between the testaments. If you want to teach Isaiah in such isolation that, unlike Matthew, your students would never think of The Advent when reading 7:14, then you should probably be teaching in a schul rather than a seminary.